What's a "subluxation"  -- medical condition or condition of chiropractors? (6-19-99)

Terry Polovoy wrote: "I say, what's a subluxation?"
One day on chiro-list....

GK (a chiropractor) asks:
I have a question for you...  Just what is the meaning of "medical condition"?

And so, the truth be told... Chiropractors don't [even] know what defines a "medical condition." No wonder they find it difficult to recognize one! :)

Does it mean a pathologic condition treated by standard medical means (drugs, surgery, PT, etc?)

Are all pathologic conditions "medical conditions" because "medicine" (as opposed to "alternate" care) has a treatment protocol?

All medical conditions can be treated with anything you want, GK; but, the results (outcomes) will vary in direct relationship to the biomedical relevance of the intervention. For example, you can rub cow-shit on patients' thighs to treat any disease, disorder, or complaint including TB and rhinitis; but, I seriously
doubt that you will do much more than stink-up your office and repulse your patient. "Butt who nose," say chiropractors :-/

If manipulative therapy (chiropractic) demonstrates an ability to directly affect a "medical condition", does it continue to be a "medical" condition?

Yes, GK.

If glaucoma responds to the cow-shit remedy I mentioned above, does it become a "cow-shit condition," only to be treated by "cow-shitters" (er, Doctors of Cowshit)? If intraocular pressure is reduced with manipulative therapy, then it is a medical condition which benefits from the application of manipulative
therapy. The same "holds true" for back sprains and strains. And yes... if glaucoma (or disc herniation) is effectively managed with any of the more than 150 chirodigms, it is [still] a medical condition which is responsive to that particular chiropractic "protocol."

One underlying fallacy which I believe contributes to your confusion and prompts your question of "ownership," is this notion that "Thuh" Adjustment ["owned and operated" by chiropractors] is the same as a manipulation [a generic and non-partisan term referencing the modality used by PTs, DOs, MDs, and those DCs who do not "Adjust"]. IOW, manipulative therapy is NOT an Adjustment
any more than Mennell, Maitland, Fiske and Cyriax are chiropractors. [I wonder how many times this needs to be said.]

There is only one uniquely chiropractic "condition" ("Pathology, Disorder, Disease," if you like) GK, and that's the Chiropractic [Vertebral] Subluxation™. As I've said, this is a delusional
clinical entity defined to be a problem by chiropractors so that they could sell themselves and their so-called "Adjustments" as the solution. The Chiropractic Subluxation™ is truly a "chiropractic condition" and has characteristics that clearly distinguish it from one that is biomedical. For example, a
Chiropractic Subluxation™ is a "chiropractic condition" which is variably defined from chiropractic office to chiropractic office. Compare this with how glaucoma or any other "medical condition" is characterized.

Right away, you should be able to start appreciating what makes a "chiropractic condition" different from one that is medical... and you _should_ be able to answer your own question. What is a
"pimple" and how does it differ from a PRS-T8? Did you think that because both can be "popped," a pimple [then] becomes a "chiropractic condition?" 

Good grief, GK :)